locogringo
Yo Mama
- Joined
- Dec 27, 2007
- Messages
- 733
- Reaction score
- 398
So, let’s say there’s someone you know that this happened to today.
Driving on freeway. Flow of traffic is about 65.
All of a sudden, out of nowhere, guy in front of this “someone I know” slams on his brakes “full tilt”.
This person I know did the same.
Middle driver hits the car in front of him. The “someone I know” hits his bumper because there just wasn’t enough time to stop with how abruptly he slammed his brakes on.
The last cars impact with middle car doesn’t cause middle car to hit front car again either.
I’m assuming last car, that had zero chance of stopping because of how abruptly middle car “late braked” is still liable for the rear ended damage of middle car?
Is there any way the last driver would not be at fault, or at 50% or less at fault?
Guy got out of middle car and apologized for slamming on his brakes so late and said he didn’t think the guy in front of him was braking.
Thoughts???
Driving on freeway. Flow of traffic is about 65.
All of a sudden, out of nowhere, guy in front of this “someone I know” slams on his brakes “full tilt”.
This person I know did the same.
Middle driver hits the car in front of him. The “someone I know” hits his bumper because there just wasn’t enough time to stop with how abruptly he slammed his brakes on.
The last cars impact with middle car doesn’t cause middle car to hit front car again either.
I’m assuming last car, that had zero chance of stopping because of how abruptly middle car “late braked” is still liable for the rear ended damage of middle car?
Is there any way the last driver would not be at fault, or at 50% or less at fault?
Guy got out of middle car and apologized for slamming on his brakes so late and said he didn’t think the guy in front of him was braking.
Thoughts???